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And then there is the question about verses 11-12. Not sure if anybody has mentioned that yet. How does that come into play? "Nevertheless, in the Lord woman is not independent of man, nor is man independent of woman. For as woman came from man, so also man is born of woman. But everything comes from God." Does the "nevertheless" here carry the same connotations in Greek as it does in English? Doesn't it mean "in spite of" or "however" when we use it today? If so, what does that mean, as it is connecting itself with the previous sentences? Is he contrasting a cultural idea with how the reality is while we are "In the Lord?" I don't know exactly how to interpret that.
The Greek word plēn can be translated as "nevertheless" or "indeed", etc.I'll quote a few ideas from BDAG about the use of this adverb:Used to mark something that is contrastingly added for consideration.Used when breaking off a discussion and emphasizing what is important.Used when breaking off a subject and passing onto a new one.Used to mark an exception.It is not entirely clear in what sense Paul used plēn, except perhaps that he used it to draw attention to this verse.
A thought I've had:I think a reason Christ came as a male was so God's salvation would be seen as involving and including both males and females. Had Christ, born of Mary, been a female, then salvation could be seen as being from and for and involving only females and the female nature.But the male Christ was born of a woman. And as the first Eve was brought forth from the first Adam, so the second or last Adam was brought forth from the second Eve (as the Roman Catholic and Orthodox Churches regard Mary). 1 Corinthians 11:12.
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